Question 3 of 26
(demo test)

Product Demo for ABPN®

A 31-year-old woman has an 18-month history of a fixed inverted and plantar-flexed right foot that began after an ankle sprain. The limb is painful, cool and allodynic, and she has stopped weight bearing on it. She has been told by one physician that she has complex regional pain syndrome and by another that the posture is psychogenic, and the two teams disagree about whether she should have physiotherapy or further sympathetic blocks. She is distressed by the implication that she is producing the posture deliberately. Examination under sedation for an unrelated dental procedure was noted to abolish the posture completely.

Which of the following best explains the relationship between these two diagnoses and the implication for her management?


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