Question 1 of 11
(demo test)

Product Demo for ABPN®

A 61-year-old man presents to the hospital with severe nausea and vomiting along with gait imbalance and slurred speech. An initial blood pressure is 242/122 mm Hg. A CT of the head without contrast demonstrates a right cerebellar hemorrhage measuring 4 x 4 cm with compression of the brainstem and encroachment on the fourth ventricle. He is not on any medications. Coagulation studies and platelets are normal. Shortly after presenting to the hospital he becomes obtunded requiring intubation. 

Which of the following treatments is most likely to improve his clinical outcome?

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